Sex really sells huh.. look how long this thread is! hehe.
Let's go back to the Lamrim:
Components of sexual misconduct (for lay people)
1. basis = any wrong orifices i.e. all orifices except the vagina; any wrong time; any improper place; any wrong partner
recognition = one must be in no doubt that the act is sexual misconduct
delusion = 1 of the 3 poisons
2. motive = wanting to engage in perversion
3. deed = 2 organs coming into contact
4. final step = experience of orgasm
Prostitution is the act or practice of providing sexual services to another person in return for payment. So prostitutions involves 2 parties, the seller and buyer.
From the side of the prostitute, I would imagine that their motive in engaging in that line is not to get sex, but money. So does such motive tick the box for sexual misconduct? If sexual misconduct is determined by whether the action would hurt others, then the prostitute would have to ask the client if he was married/ in a relationship / what would his family / friends feel if they know about this... etc and decide to accept or reject the client after considering whether the act would hurt anyone, if they want to avoid committing sexual misconduct?
From the side of the client, the motive is to have sex. assuming its the right orifice, and if the person is single + available.. then there is no sexual misconduct?
